Originally Posted by
BJ1
So. have I got this right. Harmoney introduces an option to increase investor revenue and now produces a calculation change which shows that investor revenue streams have fallen because of it? Why should the RAR calculation have updated to use the borrower principal amount? The point of the exercise was to increase investor returns? It seems to me that some techo has noticed the disparity between the borrower and investor principal amounts, panicked, and pushed the "correct" button when no correction was needed. The correct denominator is what the investor has invested - it is the investor's RAR, not the borrower's.