OK, I have found another reference on this topic which is more in line with what I was expecting to find.
https://www.omnicalculator.com/finan...ld-to-maturity
Bond Price= ∑(k=1,n) [ C/ (1+Y)^k ]
Where 'C' is the coupon (as before), and k is the 'investment period' for a whole series of cashflows, starting at 1 and ending at n, and lastly Y is the 'yield to maturity' (as before).
This is a 'summation calculation of the cashflows' formula that I was expecting. Under certain circumstances, there are ways of summing these 'sigma' calculations with a simplified formula. I suspect the YTM calculation in the quoted text above might be that, for the special case where 'C' is the same for all investment periods. But I should get the same answer 'either way' . So let's see.......
The 'bond price' in the equation in this post refers to the price the investor must pay to acquire the bond, which = $1,012.5k in this case.
,
Bookmarks